Originally Posted By: Timbo
Originally Posted By: bluezone
Originally Posted By: Timbo
The U.S. constitution specifically mentions American Indians three times. Article I, section 2, clause 3 and the fourteenth amendment section 2 address the handling of "Indians not taxed" in the apportionment of the seats of the House of Representatives according to population and in so doing suggest that Indians need not be taxed.


(feel free to post the entire clause)

that was for voting rights
the 'tribal' members were given US citizenship in 1924
your point lacks merit

Your "facts" lack merit. They still retain their Treaty and Constitutional rights regardless of whether or not they are citizens (precisely as I already posted proof of).

The states have NO authority over the Indians.

You OBVIOUSLY do not even live in NYS>
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/25/232
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/25/233

These laws passed by congress RECOGNIZED the EXISTING State jurisdiction over the State Indian reservations.

The only BS that you have NOT argued is the SUPREME LAW OF THE LAND argument for treaties while neglecting to include that a treaty is merely a congressional act that gets super ceded by every succeeding congressional act. Note that the above congressional acts were passed about 1952.

Better go have some more of your rock.
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